Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Last Updated: 02.07.2025 00:07

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

You'll usually find your answer there.

Moderate liberals, if any use leftist Quora, how do you feel about being associated with those who enjoy burning American flags, supporting Hamas, having men competing against women in sports, open borders, green new deal and general wokery?

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

There's no rule.

Is it possible for people who claim to be genuine and honest to actually not be? If so, why do they behave this way?

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

Everything Tony Vitello said about Tennessee's loss to Arkansas in opener of super regional - 247Sports

What's (not “whats”) the rule?